MCQ - 1



Q1- Menses only during the day; cease on lying down

  • a)   Pulsatilla
  • b)     Sepia
  • c)     Causticum
  • d)     Bovista
       ANS - C

Q2- Long retention of urine without any discomfort and urge

  • a)     Causticum
  • b)     Apis mel
  • c)     Stramonium
  • d)     Helleborus
       ANS - C

Q3- Renal colic, intense pain in urine with sensation of passing calculus with craving for ice in

  • a)     Medorrhinum
  • b)     Verat. Alb
  • c)     Berberis vulgaris
  • d)     Phosphorus
       ANS - A

Q4- Dyspnoea agg from sitting, after sleep in room, amel by dancing or walking rapidly

  • a)     Rhus tox
  • b)     Psorinum
  • c)     Sepia
  • d)     Kali carb
        ANS - C

Q5- Great weakness and trembling, tongue trembles while protruding, catches under the lower teeth

  • a)     Lycopodium
  • b)     Lachesis
  • c)     Rhus tox
  • d)     Sulphur
        ANS - B 


Q1- Polyuria with coryza is an example of symptoms

  • a)     Guiding
  • b)     Concomitant
  • c)     Objective
  • d)     Subjective
           ANS - B

Q2- Author of repertory of urinary organ

  • a)      W.C. Allen
  • b)      Possart
  • c)      A.R. Morgan
  • d)      Lippe
          ANS - C

Q3- Repertory of antipsoric published by

  • a)      Dr Hahnemann
  • b)      Dr. J. T. Kent
  • c)      Dr. Constantine herrig
  • d)      Dr. Boenninghausen
          ANS - D

Q4- What does word QUANDO means

  • a)      Personality
  • b)      Cause
  • c)      Seat of disease
  • d)      Time
            ANS - D

Q5- Concordance repertories are those

  • a)      Written in provers language
  • b)      That do not have alphabetical arrangement of chapters and rubrics
  • c)      That do not contain rubrics
  • d)      Having a definite philosophical background

         ANS - A



Q1- Ratanhia is prepared from

  • a)     Rhizome
  • b)     Root
  • c)     Leaves
  • d)     stem
           ANS - B

Q2- From which triturated potency the drug is convert to liquid potency

  • a)      4x
  • b)      6x
  • c)      8x
  • d)      12x
          ANS - B

Q3- Pallet is the

  • a)      Solid vehicle
  • b)      Liquid vehicle
  • c)      Other name of vehicle
  • d)      Synonym of globule
        ANS - A

Q4- Gutta purcha bottles are used for storing acids

  • a)      Hydrochloric
  • b)      Sulphur
  • c)      Nitric
  • d)      Fluoric
        ANS - D

Q5- There are ……………..type of alcohol

  • a)      5
  • b)      15
  • c)      7
  • d)      8
        ANS - A


Q1- The main blood supply of tonsil is

      a) Lingual artery

b) Facial artery

c) Ascending pharyngeal artery

d) occipital artery


Q2- The 8th cranial nerve is

  • a)      Abducent
  • b)      Facial
  • c)      Vagus
  • d)      Auditory
        ANS - D

Q3- the third part of duodenum is

  • a)      Longest part of duodenum
  • b)      Crossed in front by inf mesenteric artery
  • c)      Developed from foregut
  • d)      Pierced by the ampulla of vater
         ANS - A

Q4- Which of the following veins not drain into inferior vena cava

  • a)      Rt renal vein
  • b)      Lt renal vein
  • c)      Rt supra renal vein
  • d)      Lt supra renal vein
         ANS - D

Q5- Lymphatic drainage of the testes is

  • a)     Supra-clavicular lymph nodes
  • b)     Inguinal lymph node
  • c)     Para-aortic lymph node
  • d)     Retro-peritoneal lymph node  
  •  ANS - C



Q1- Liquefactive necrosis is common in

  • a)      GIT
  • b)      Brain
  • c)      Liver
  • d)      Heart
        ANS - B  

Q2- The pathology of Parkinsonism lies in

  • a)      Red nucleus
  • b)      Nigro-striatal tract
  • c)      Hypothalamus
  • d)      hippocampus
          ANS - B

Q3-The commonest type of bronchogenic carcinoma

  • a)      Small cell carcinoma
  • b)      Adenocarcinoma
  • c)      large cell carcinoma
  • d)      squamous cell carcinoma 
          ANS - D

Q4- Normal value of BUN is

  • a)      20-40mg/dl
  • b)      40-60mg/dl
  • c)      8-16mg/dl
  • d)      10-20mg/dl
          ANS - D

Q5- Alkaline phosphate levels are elevated in all of the following except

  • a)      Obstructive jaundice
  • b)      Brain tumors
  • c)      Bone tumors
  • d)      Placental tumors

           ANS - B


Q1- Salivary enzymes are seen in ……………….granules of salivary gland

  • a)      metachromatic
  • b)      babes Ernst
  • c)      zymogen
  • d)      lipid
         ANS - C

 Q2- The actvities of all the following enzymes are increased in starvation except

  • a)      Pyruvate kinase
  • b)      Pyruvate carboxylase
  • c)      Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinas
  • d)      Glucose 6 phosphate
          ANS - A

Q3- The axon reflux is related to

  • a)      Wheal
  • b)      Red reaction
  • c)      Flare
  • d)      White reaction
         ANS - C

Q4- Highest concentration of vitamin C in the body is found in the

  • a) Adrenal cortex
  • b) spleen
  • c) Liver
  • d) kidney
        ANS - A

Q5-Sickle cell haemoglobin is charecterised by

  • a)      Replacement of glutamate by valine at beta 6 position
  • b)      Replacement of glutamate by Lysin at beta 6 position
  • c)      Replacement of glutamate by valine at 22 position
  • d)      Replacement of glutamate by valine at alpha 6 position

           ANS - D


Q1- Which of the following is 2nd degree uterine prolapse

  • a)      descent of cervix into vagina
  • b)      descent of cervix into introitus
  • c)      descent of cervix outside the introitus
  • d)      all uterus outside the introitus
          ANS - B

Q2- All of the following tumors are germ cell tumors of overy except

  • a)      dysgerminoma
  • b)      granulosa cell tumor
  • c)      taratoma
  • d)      choriocarcinoma
         ANS - B

Q3- The earliest clinical manifestation of pre-eclampsia is

  •  a ) rise in blood pressure
  • b)      albuminuria
  • c)      weight gain
  • d)      narrowing of the retinal vessels
         ANS - C

Q4- The presence of polyhydramnios associated with one of the following fetal abnormalities

  • a)      anencephaly
  • b)      cleft palate
  • c)      tracheo-esophageal fistula
  • d)      renal agenesis
         ANS - A

Q5- which of the following infection is transmitted transplacental

  • a)      Hepatitis-B
  • b)      Leprosy
  • c)      Ways
  • d)      Arbor viruses
           ANS - A


Q1- Complications of wound healing are

  • a)      infection
  • b)      pigmentation
  • c)      deficient scar formation
  • d)      all of above
         ANS - A

Q2- The commenest complication of intrcapsular fracture neck of femur is

  • a)      osteoarthritis
  • b)      maluion
  • c)      shortening
  • d)      non-union
         ANS - D

Q3- What is the abscess situated in the retroperitoneal

  • a)      subphrenic abscess
  • b)      pancreatic abscess
  • c)      pelvic abscess
  • d)      perineal abscess
         ANS - B

Q4- Which of the following abdominal viscera is most commonly injured due to blunt injury

  • a)      Kidney
  • b)      Spleen
  • c)      Gall bladder
  • d)      Urinary bladder
          ANS - B

Q5- The sign most important finding in acute appendicitis is

  • a)      Vomiting
  • b)      Elevated temperature
  • c)      Leukocytosis
  • d)      Tenderness in rt. iliac fossa
         ANS - D



Q1- All the following about spina bifida acculata are true except

  • a)     it may be incidental finding
  • b)     the overlying skin may show a hairy patch
  • c)     the membrane reunieos increases in size without the growth of child
  • d) Paralytic deformity of the lower limb may occur around the age of 10 years
       ANS - C 

Q2- Complications of Dengue syndrome are following except

  • a)      Shock
  • b)      Circulatory failure
  • c)      Convulsion
  • d)      haemorrhage
        ANS - C

 Q3- Majority of cases of membranous glomerulonephritis has a etiology

  • a)      SLE
  • b)      Viral infection
  • c)      H/O drugs
  • d)      idiopathic
           ANS - D

Q4- Syndome of cirrhosis, pigmentation of skin and diabetes mellitus is found in

  • a)      Haemochromatosis
  • b)      Biliary cirrosis
  • c)      Amyloidosis
  • d)      Arsenic poisoning
           ANS - A

Q5- Skin rash in chicken pox is more profuse and dense in the

  • a)      Lower part of the face, arms and legs
  • b)      Entire face, axilla and trunk
  • c)      Upper part of the face and distal parts ao arms and legs
  • d)      Abdomen back, palm and feet

           ANS - B


Q1 – Q fever is caused by

  • a)      Diapetalonema strepocerca
  • b)      Streptococcus pyogens
  • c)      Aspergilla
  • d)      Coxiella burnetti
         ANS - D

Q2- The vector for dengue hemorrhagic fever is

  • a)      Aedes aegypti
  • b)      Culex vishnui
  • c)      Culex tritaeneorynchus
  • d)      Phlebotomus papatasi
          ANS - A

Q3- All of the following infection are transmitted by sand flies except

  • a)      Leishmaniasis
  • b)      Sandfly fever
  • c)      Chagas disease
  • d)      bartonellosis
        ANS - C

Q4- Which of the most common cause of blindness in India

  •  a)      Vitamin A deficiency
  • b)      Cataract
  • c)      Glucoma
  • d)      Corneal opacity
         ANS - B

Q5- Least amount of protein per 100 g is present in the milk of

  • a)      Human milk
  • b)      Cow milk
  • c)      Buffalo milk
  • d)      Goat milk

           ANS - A


Q1- Garroting

  • a)      the victim is attacked from behind without warning
  • b)      one strong bamboo is placed at the back of the neck and another across in front
  • c)      holding the neck of victim
  • d)      none of the above
          ANS - A

Q2- Medico legal importance of age

  • a)      criminal responsibility
  • b)      judicial punishment
  • c)      rape
  • d)      all the above
          ANS - D

Q3 Almond like bitter smell is positive in

  • a)      Choral hydrate poisoning
  • b)      Hydrocyanic acid
  • c)      Hydrocyanic poisoning
  • d)      Oleander poisoning
          ANS - C

Q4- All of the following causes constriction of pupil except

  • a)      Dhatura
  • b)      Morphin
  • c)      Organophosphorus poisoning
  • d)      Pontine haemorrhage
         ANS - A

Q5- Which of the following is used in forgeries as an ink removal solution

  • a)      Sulphuric acid
  • b)      Nitric acid
  • c)      Carbolic acid
  • d)      Oxalic acid

           ANS - D


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